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Must Practice question for CDS 2018 || POLITY COMPLETED




1. Which of the following acts laid the foundation of Central Administration ?
1. Charter Act of 1833
2. Regulating Act of 1773
3. Charter Act of  1853
4. Pits India Act of 1784
Ans- 2
2. In the federation under the Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the
1. Federal legislature
2. Provincial legislature
3. Governer-General
4. Provincial Governer
Ans- 3
3. Government of India Act of 1858 include
1. Replacement of Company rule by the Crown Rule.
2. Establishment of a Board of Control over the Court of Directors.
3. Reaffirmation of the system of open competition.
4. Separating the legislative and Excutive Functions of the Governer-General.
5. Creation of a new office of the Secretary of State for India.
1. 1, 3 and 4
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1 and 5
4. 1, 3 and 5
Ans- 1, 3 and 4
6. Which of the following Acts was described by Jawahar Lal Nehuru as 'Charter of Slavery'?
1. Regulating Act, 1773
2. Pits's India Act, 1784
3. Government of India Act, 1919
4. Government of India Act, 1935
Ans- 4
7. The most short-lived of all of Britain Constitutional experiments in India was the
1. Indian Council Act of 1861
2. Indian Council Act of 1892
3. Indian Council Act of 1909
4. Government of India Act of 1919
Ans- 3
8. Consider the following statements
1. White paper issued after the Third Round Table Conference outlined the British Government's proposal for constitutional reforms in India
2. Congress Working Commitee declared that the only satisfactory alternative to the white paper was a Constitution drawn up by a Constituent assembly elected on the basis of ad.
3. Congress Working Commitee rejected the report of Joint Parliamentary Commitee (1933-34) on Constitutional Reforms.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
1. only 1
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3
Ans- 4
9. Which one of the following statement is correct?
1. The Consituent Assembly of India was elected the Provincial Assemblies in the year 1946
2. Jawaharlal Nehru, MA Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the Constituent Assembly of India
3. The First Session of the  Constituent Assembly of India was held in January, 1947
4. The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950
Ans- 1
10. Assertion (A) Constituent Assembly could not be called a sovereign body.
Reason (R) It was established by the British Government and could be abolished by it.
Codes
1. Both A and R  are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true
Ans- 1
11. India can not be considered unitary bacause?
1. A written and ragid Constitution
2. The residuary power vest in the union
3. Central control of the state in the administrative sector
4. Distribution of excutive and Legislative Power between the Union and States
Ans- 4
12. Choose the federal features of Indian Constitution
1. It has provision for  distribution of powers between the Union and States
2. It provides for constitutional supermacy.
3. Its allowance for single citizenship
4. It makes detailed provision for independence of judiciary
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) All of the above
Ans- C
13. Which of the following ideas is/are closely associated with the idea of secularism in India?
1. Equality of citizenship and non discrimination
2. Non-invlovement of state in religious matters including personal law
3. Freedom of belief and worship
4. Equal and free access to educational institutions till 10th standard  for its equivalent
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) only 1
Ans- C
14. Which of the following statements is correct with regarding with 4th Sehedule of the Constitution?
1. It allocates seats to each states and Union Territory in the Rajya Sabha
2. It has the provision as to the admimistration and control of Tribal Area
3. It has provision regarding the disqualification of members on the ground of defection
4. It is related to land reforms and 1st Amendment
Ans- 1
15. The cardinal features of political system in India are
1. It is a democratic republic.
2. It has a Parliamentary form of Government
3. The superme power vests in the people of India
4. It provides for a unified authority.
Codes
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All of these
Ans-  D
16. Indian Constitution declares India a Secular State, This means that
1. religious worship is not allowed
2. religious are patronised by the State
3. The State regards religion as a private affair of the citizen and does not discriminate on this basis
4. None of the above.
Ans- 3
17. Ideals of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity have been taken  form
1. Irish Revolution
2. French Revolution
3. Russian Revolution
3. American Revolution
Ans- 2
18. Which on of the followin statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
1. It lists distribution of powers between the Union and States
2. It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
3. It contain the provisions regarding the administration of Tribal areas
4. It allocates seat in the Council of States
Ans- 4
19. Identify the correct statements regarding JVP
commitee
1. The Commitee recommended language as the basis for the reorganisation of the States.
2. It suggested security, unity and economic prosperity of the nation as the criteria of the reorganisation.
Codes
(a) only 1
(b) only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans- B
20. Which article of the Constitution states that formation of States and change of name of the States are not part of Constitutional Amendment as part of Article 368?
1. Article 2
2. Article 3
3. Article 4
4. Article 5
Ans- 3
21. Which country accepted the policy of Dual Citizenship?
1. India
2. Canada
3. Australia
4. USA
Ans- 4
22. In India who is eligible for the office of President?
1. A citizen by birth
2. A naturalised Citizen
3. Both a citizen by birth as well as a naturalised citizen
4. Any person  irrespective  of citizenship status
Ans- 3
23. Indian Citizenship Act 1955 follows
1. Jus Sanguinis
2. Jus Soil
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) only 1
(b) ony 2
(c) 1 and 2 Both
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2
Ans- A
24. A person who wants to became a  citizen of India should approach to which ministry?
1. Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs
2. Ministry of External Affairs
3. Ministry of Home Affairs
4. Prime Minster's Office
Ans- 3
25. Which of the following are not applicable to the aliens?
1. Article 15
2. Article 16
3. Article 19
4. Article 21
Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) only 4
Ans- A
26. Assertion (A) Fundamental Rights are positive and negative.
Reason (R) Positve fundamental rights place limitations on the authority of the State, while nagative Fundamental rights confer certain privileges on the persons.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans- C
27. In which of the following cases Superme Court has held that the Preamble forms part of the Constitution?
1. Union of India vs Dr Kholi
2. Banarasidas vs State of UP
3. Bommai vs Union of India
4. Malak Singh vs State of Punjab
Ans- 3
28. In which of the following cases, Superme Court held that
''Fundamental Rights enable a man to chalk out his own life in the manner he likes best ?''
1. Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain
2. Golaknath vs State of Punjab
3. Bank Natinalisation Case
4. Azar vs Municpal Corporation
Ans- 2
29. Consider the following  provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India
1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code.
2.  Organising Village Panchyats
3. Promoting Cottage industries in rural areas.
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural apportunities.
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the DPSP?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans- B
30. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on education?
1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Rural and Urban Bodies
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
5. Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans- C
31. Which one of the following is a Human Right Under the Constitution of India?
1. Right to Information
2. Right to Education
3. Right to Work
4. Right to Housing
Ans- 4
32. Which amendment added Article 21 A?
1. 42nd Amendment
2. 44th Amendment
3. 76th Amendment
4. 86th Amendment
Ans- 4
33. Who was the right under the Constitution to seek the opinion of the Superme Court on question of law?
1. President
2. Any High Court
3. Prime Minister
4. All of the above
Ans- 1
34. The Writ Habeus Corpus is available for
1. Directing any person, corporation, or inferior court to do some particular thing
2. The purpose of releasing from illegal custody, persons unlawfully detained
3. Dirction of Superme Court to an inferior court to send the records of pending case
4. Directing the lower court to stop proceedings by a higher court
Ans- 3
35. The Articles of the Constitution of India which deal with Directive Principles
1. 26 to 41
2. 30 to 45
3. 36 to 51
4. 40 to 55
Ans- 3
36. Model code of conduct was used for the first time in
1.1957
2. 1962
3. 1971
4. 1989
Ans- 4
37. Which of the following is/are correct?
1. Prohibition of traffic in hauman beings and forced labour.
2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans- B
38. In India Fundamental Duties was incorporated on the recommendations of?
1. Swaran Singh Commitee
2. S Varadachari Commitee
3. Shah Commitee
4. None of the above
Ans- 1
39. In which year Fundamental Duties of citizens were introduced  by 42nd amendment?
1. 1975
2. 1976
3. 1977
4. 1980
Ans- 2
40. The Fundamental Duties are mentioned in the following part of Constitution of India?
1. Part III
2. Part IV
3. Part IV A
4. Part VI
Ans- 3
41. It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment. This statement refers to which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
1. Article 21
2. Article 48-A
3. Article 51A
4. Article 56
Ans- 3
42.Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duties?
1. To renounce practices deragatory to diginity of women
2. To safeguard public property
3. To protect monuments and places of public importance
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
Ans- 3
43. Indian Parliament consists of
1. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
2. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister
3. Speaker and Lok Sabha
4. President and both the houses
Ans- 4
44. Special provision for the States of Maharastra, Gujarat, Nagaland, Asom, Manipur, Andhara Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh are present in
1. 12th Part
2. 14th Part
3. 21th Part
4. 22th Part
Ans- 3
45. The joint sitting of the House of people and the council of States is summoned by
1. the President
2. the Speaker of Lok Sabha
3. the Parliament
4. the Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans- 1
46. He represents the nation but does not lead the nation. This dictum applies on whom of the following?
1. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
2. Chief Justice of India
3. Prime Minister
4. President
Ans- 4
47. Election to the office of the President is conducted by
1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
2. The Prime Minister's office
3. The Minister for Parliament Affairs
4. The Election Commission of India
Ans- 4
48. In the event of vacancy in the offices of both the President and Vice-President of India, the person who performs the duty of a President is
1. Speaker of Lok Sabha
2. Chief Justice of India
3. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
4. Atorney General
Ans- 2
49. Which of the following types of authorities are attributed to the President of India?
1. Real and Popular
2. Titular and D-jure
3. Political and Nominal
4. Constitutional and Nominal
Select the correct answer from codes given below
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
Ans-  D
50. The Constitution declares Delhi as the seat of the Superme Court. But, it also authorises the chief justice of India to appoint other place or places as a seat of the Superme Court. He can take decision in this regard only with the approval of?
1. the Parliament
2. the President
3. the senior most judges of the Superme Court
4. None of the above
Ans- 2
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